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Lv 4
? asked in Science & MathematicsMathematics · 1 decade ago

why is it that two equals one?

X^2 - X^2 = X^2 - X^2

a little rearrange

(X+X)(X-X)= X(X-X)

divide out the common term

X+X = X

let X =1

and then

2 = 1

9 Answers

Relevance
  • iceman
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    Dude please.

    0 = 0, right.

  • 1 decade ago

    The problem happens after the equation is rearranged.

    (X+X)(X-X) = X(X-X)

    The common term is (X-X). However, (X-X) equals zero. Division by zero is not allowed, so the common term cannot be divided out.

    Therefore the line X+X=X is not correct. And, 2 does not equal 1.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    (x+x)*(x-x) is not equal to x*(x-x) but it is equal to x^2-x^2+x^2-x^2, which is equal to 0

    because

    if x = 1

    1^2 - 1^2 + 1^2 - 1^2 = 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 = 0 + 0 = 0

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    In the second line (X-X)=0 so dividing by anything is meaningless.

  • 1 decade ago

    you didnt rearrange it right. you added x+x to one side and then only x to the other. you should do the same to both sides in every algebraic equation

    hope this helps & have a great day!!! :D

  • 1 decade ago

    your second step is wrong, -x^2 cant be rearranged into (x-x) and x^2 cant be (x+x)

  • 1 decade ago

    This proof is wrong, because X - X is zero and you cannot divide by zero.

  • 1 decade ago

    you boogered up on your rearrange part, squaring involves multiplication of X, we can't use repeated addition

  • 1 decade ago

    common sense

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